Yohanes 6:6

6:6 (Now Jesus ¹  said this to test him, for he knew what he was going to do.) ² 

Yohanes 7:15

7:15 Then the Jewish leaders ³  were astonished ⁴  and said, “How does this man know so much when he has never had formal instruction?” ⁵ 

Yohanes 12:41

12:41 Isaiah said these things because he saw Christ’s ⁶  glory, and spoke about him.

Yohanes 17:18

17:18 Just as you sent me into the world, so I sent them into the world. ⁷ 

Yohanes 20:14

20:14 When she had said this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing there, ⁸  but she did not know that it was Jesus.

Yohanes 21:13

21:13 Jesus came and took the bread and gave it to them, and did the same with the fish.

[6:6]  ¹ tn Grk “he”; the referent (Jesus) has been specified in the translation for clarity.

[6:6]  ² sn This is a parenthetical note by the author.

[7:15]  ³ tn Or “the Jewish authorities”; Grk “the Jews.” Here the phrase refers to the Jewish authorities or leaders who were Jesus’ primary opponents. See the note on the phrase “the Jewish leaders” in v. 1.

[7:15]  ⁴ tn Or “began to be astonished.” This imperfect verb could also be translated ingressively (“began to be astonished”), but for English stylistic reasons it is rendered as a simple past.

[7:15]  ⁵ tn Grk “How does this man know learning since he has not been taught?” The implication here is not that Jesus never went to school (in all probability he did attend a local synagogue school while a youth), but that he was not the disciple of a particular rabbi and had not had formal or advanced instruction under a recognized rabbi (compare Acts 4:13 where a similar charge is made against Peter and John; see also Paul’s comment in Acts 22:3).

[7:15]  sn He has never had formal instruction. Ironically when the Jewish leaders came face to face with the Word become flesh – the preexistent Logos, creator of the universe and divine Wisdom personified – they treated him as an untaught, unlearned person, without the formal qualifications to be a teacher.

[12:41]  ⁶ tn Grk “his”; the referent (Christ) has been specified in the translation for clarity. The referent supplied here is “Christ” rather than “Jesus” because it involves what Isaiah saw. It is clear that the author presents Isaiah as having seen the preincarnate glory of Christ, which was the very revelation of the Father (see John 1:18; John 14:9).

[12:41]  sn Because he saw Christ’s glory. The glory which Isaiah saw in Isa 6:3 was the glory of Yahweh (typically rendered as “Lord” in the OT). Here John speaks of the prophet seeing the glory of Christ since in the next clause and spoke about him, “him” can hardly refer to Yahweh, but must refer to Christ. On the basis of statements like 1:14 in the prologue, the author probably put no great distinction between the two. Since the author presents Jesus as fully God (cf. John 1:1), it presents no problem to him to take words originally spoken by Isaiah of Yahweh himself and apply them to Jesus.

[17:18]  ⁷ sn Jesus now compared the mission on which he was sending the disciples to his own mission into the world, on which he was sent by the Father. As the Father sent Jesus into the world (cf. 3:17), so Jesus now sends the disciples into the world to continue his mission after his departure. The nature of this prayer for the disciples as a consecratory prayer is now emerging: Jesus was setting them apart for the work he had called them to do. They were, in a sense, being commissioned.

[20:14]  ⁸ tn The word “there” is not in the Greek text, but is implied. Direct objects were often omitted in Greek when clear from the context.